Here is a question we hear often: Is maaser its own mitzvah, or is it just a form of tzedakah?
If maaser is really tzedakah, then everyone who gives 10% of their income may have only fulfilled tzedakah — and never actually done maaser at all.
But if maaser is its own separate mitzvah, then the opposite problem appears: when people give that same 10% thinking it is maaser, are they giving tzedakah at all? Or have they only ever done maaser and never fulfilled the mitzvah of tzedakah separately?
How do you understand this? Is there a way both mitzvot can coexist in one person's giving, or must we distinguish them clearly?